Calling all IFRS guru's [If any]


Recommended Posts

suprNOVA

I need some help on a specific Accounting question related to the allocation of costs to a subsidiary. Can anybody help?
Essentially, Company P pays salary for employee who has been hired to help Company S become profitable and devotes 90% of his time to Company S, however, Company P has not charged Company S for this salary. Can this cost be allocated without charging Company S?! 

 

My case mentions that none of the costs have been allocated, but I'm having a hard time finding guidance. I mean in reality, I would probably charge the company and create a due to/from account and expense it directly on the subsidiaries income statement.

 

But I also know that if I were to report the subsidiary as an operating segment, I could allocate right?

 

It's a bit strange but I'm sure this is a common sort of issue. I've thought about the matching principle (which I don't think this would apply to). 

 

My role is an internal auditor.

 

 

Link to post
Share on other sites

Create an account or sign in to comment

You need to be a member in order to leave a comment

Create an account

Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!

Register a new account

Sign in

Already have an account? Sign in here.

Sign In Now
  • Recently Browsing   0 members

    No registered users viewing this page.