Does 0.999999999999999999 really equal 1?


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Technically an infinitesimal number of 9's is 1. Since mathematically no number exists with an infinite decimal series of 9's... No, it's not rounding because there is no end number to round...

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Take this -

Jimmy is standing in a bus 2 feet from the door.... Every time he takes a step it is one-half as far as his last step. He starts by taking a one foot step. Will he ever make it to the door?

(1/2) + (1/4) + (1/8).... ad infinadum = 2, yet if you only go so many steps, not infinitly many, you never reach 2.... Same goes with the number of decimal 9's.

PS: If you don't get this, then you'll never get it.

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Originally posted by Space Guy

err.. wha?!

thats what im sayin.....LOL i dont have a clue what that means

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Oh, ok then... You're fine there.... But for the fact that you can't multiply an infinitesimal number by a real number like I said in my pi post....

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Originally posted by VaxoP

lol this thread is getting funny

Ah, yes, hilarious... You're corrupting my mind while I'm on break.... :mad:

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think of it this way.

any number divided by X and then multiplied by X is that number.

1/3 x 3 = 1 divided by 3, multiplied by 3.

based on this fact.... what your topic should really be is 1=1?!?!!?!?!?!?!?!

let x = 0.99

100x = 99.99

100x - x

99x = 99

x = 1?

your getting your equation messed up there bubba...

x=.99

100x=99.00

100x-x = 99-.99 = 98.01

99x=98.01

x=.99

X can not equal more than 1 thing in an equation. in yours you state it equals 1 and .99..... make up your mind. =)

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Ok, I'm just gonna put it in simple terms because I'm going to sleep now.....

0.99999999999 ad infinadum doesn't exist so there....

And Pi the number doesn't exist, only the theory of Pi exists, and approximations of Pi

3.14159265358972 {is not equal to} Pi

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lol.. i have a chem exam tomorrow.. dont know what i am doing here.. :p

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I'm a firm believer that there is no such thing as a definite, clean whole number. Of course, if you had 3 tennis balls and asked me how many tennis balls, I wouldn't say 3 because the slightest difference in shape between them all throws it off. Of course, this difference is very minor but it counts. It's hard to explain, and very technical, but just think about it. :old:

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evil_dragon, of course u can - pi is irrational, the numbers following one is not in a logical order..

however

0.3333 forever IS in a logical order.. even though it goes on forever.

you cannot multiply pi by 3 and get an exact answer, as the numbers are all different

multiply 0.33 forever by 3, and you will get 0.99 forever

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But .99999 forever cannot exist because infinity isn't mathematically defined.

When trying to prove something like this you'll just end up dividing by 0.

When something gets infinitly smaller it can equal something - my Sum example.

When something gets infinitly bigger it equals infinity - 1+2+3+4.....

When something is infinitly stable it will ultimately lead to infinity - 1+1+1+1+1.....

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one small little question.. whats the point of this? :p :D

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Originally posted by Space Guy

one small little question.. whats the point of this? :p :D

Just to **** me off....... :dead: :dead: :dead: *starts squeezing stress doll*

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we count things(like tennis balls) by how many of them there are, not necessarily by their weight or size(though depending on the circumstances there are many different ways of measuring quantity).

just because 1 tennis ball is a bit bigger or smaller than 1 other tennis ball, it doesnt mean they are not tennis balls. each tennis ball is its own entity, therefore it is 1. >D

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open notepad type 0.999999999999999999 and save it

then open notepad again and type 1 and save it

now look the first one is 20 bytes and the second is just one byte

so they are not equal:P

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