Hum Posted May 6, 2005 Share Posted May 6, 2005 NEW YORK (AP) -- To the dismay of gay-rights activists, the Food and Drug Administration is about to implement new rules recommending that any man who has engaged in homosexual sex in the previous five years be barred from serving as an anonymous sperm donor. The FDA has rejected calls to scrap the provision, insisting that gay men collectively pose a higher-than-average risk of carrying the AIDS virus. Critics accuse the FDA of stigmatizing all gay men rather than adopting a screening process that focuses on high-risk sexual behavior by any would-be donor, gay or straight. "Under these rules, a heterosexual man who had unprotected sex with HIV-positive prostitutes would be OK as a donor one year later, but a gay man in a monogamous, safe-sex relationship is not OK unless he's been celibate for five years," said Leland Traiman, director of a clinic in Alameda, California, that seeks gay sperm donors. Traiman said adequate safety assurances can be provided by testing a sperm donor at the time of the initial donation, then freezing the sperm for a six-month quarantine and testing the donor again to be sure there is no new sign of HIV or other infectious diseases. Although there is disagreement over whether the FDA guideline regarding gay men will have the force of law, most doctors and clinics are expected to observe it. more: http://www.cnn.com/2005/HEALTH/05/05/gay.donor.ap/index.html Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Soham Posted May 6, 2005 Share Posted May 6, 2005 FDA has issues.... it is interesting Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OPaul Posted May 6, 2005 Share Posted May 6, 2005 Surely they test for diseases before excepting the sperm.....what's the point of baring homosexuals... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dreamz Veteran Posted May 6, 2005 Veteran Share Posted May 6, 2005 Surely they test for diseases before excepting the sperm.....what's the point of baring homosexuals... 585879976[/snapback] they're barring men who have had homosexual sex, whether they be heterosexual or (more likely) homosexual. it's probably more of a first screening for cost/efficiency purposes. who knows? it shouldn't make a difference if they test each case individually anyway. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
revvo Posted May 6, 2005 Share Posted May 6, 2005 Doesn't make sense. What about straight people who do it up the rectum? Just like you guys said, they obviously do a test so this is most probably an indirect form of discrimination. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts