Beyond Godlike Posted November 29, 2012 Share Posted November 29, 2012 My coworkers and I are having a debate with our HR Department about a vacation policy. It reads: Twenty (20) working days vacation with pay in each year commencing in the fourth year until the end of the tenth year, inclusive. The debate is involving people who are now in their 4th year, and we see the policy as granting 4 weeks of vacation for us. HR says, its for people in their 5th year. What do you guys think? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Astra.Xtreme Posted November 29, 2012 Share Posted November 29, 2012 Well it says "commencing in the fourth year", so I would think it means sometime during the fourth year. I guess it could mean that it could be granted on day 364 of the 4th year, but realistically it sounds like you would be granted it on the first day of the fourth year. I do think HR is wrong in thinking it means during the 5th year. That doesn't make any sense in the context of it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Beyond Godlike Posted November 29, 2012 Author Share Posted November 29, 2012 Well it says "commencing in the fourth year", so I would think it means sometime during the fourth year. I guess it could mean that it could be granted on day 364 of the 4th year, but realistically it sounds like you would be granted it on the first day of the fourth year. I do think HR is wrong in thinking it means during the 5th year. That doesn't make any sense in the context of it. Yeah were confused as to how they can come to that conclusion. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jakem1 Posted November 29, 2012 Share Posted November 29, 2012 Could it mean that you accumulate the time in the fourth year and can only use it from the fifth year on? Also, why do you have to wait four or five years to get four weeks holiday? It seems pretty mean. What happens after 10 years? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Beyond Godlike Posted November 29, 2012 Author Share Posted November 29, 2012 Could it mean that you accumulate the time in the fourth year and can only use it from the fifth year on? Also, why do you have to wait four or five years to get four weeks holiday? It seems pretty mean. What happens after 10 years? Its possible, but for the first 3 years you can use it before youve even accrued it. After 10 years its 5 weeks. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Anibal P Posted November 29, 2012 Share Posted November 29, 2012 From my experiences when they say in they mean starting that year, sounds to me like someone in HR is being a douche Before you get into a serious argument get your supervisor and manager involved, I bet it gets resolved correctly real fast if you do that, and threaten to take it higher if necessary, some managers especially can be lazy and that threat will lite a fire under their rear Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rohdekill Posted November 29, 2012 Share Posted November 29, 2012 If anything, the fourth year would be based on your start date in comparison with end of year date. Meaning, if you were hired on December 1st and End of year is December 31, you should not expect 4 weeks of vacation available to you from 2 Dec thru 31 Dec. and then another four weeks starting Jan 1 You should receive a percentage, which would equate to less than half a day paid vacation. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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