jessejlt Posted June 3, 2002 Share Posted June 3, 2002 I just saw a case where the plaintiff sent his television to be repaired (6/03/02), the defendant claimed that the plaintiff did not pickup his television after he was told it would cost an additional 200.00 to fix the television, after many months the defendant disposed of the television. The Judged ruled that the defendant couldn't prove he had sent a letter to the plaintiff informing him to pickup his television, so she ruled in the defendants favor, however the defendant was awarded a 100.00 deposit and 200.00 value of the television. If the plaintiff was willing to pay 300.00 to have the television fixed, but not 500.00, wouldn't that make the value of the television 300.00 ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TimeRider Posted June 3, 2002 Share Posted June 3, 2002 Not necessarily. The plaintiff is entitled to the value of the TV at the time of the loss, not the value of the item once repaired . . . or what it was worth to plaintiff to repair it. $200 for a broken TV seems like a pretty good settlement. -TR Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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